Players reveal their cards early, how to proceed?
This was in a friends' league tournament, but at least a third of us (10 out of 30) take this seriously, so we generally try to apply standard rulings. Here's the action:
Player 1 raises preflop.
Player 2 re-raises big but still has chips behind.
Action back on player 1 (heads-up at this point):
So P1 says "call" and turns over his hand, thinking that P2 had re-raised enough to put him all-in (which wasn't the case).
Now here's where things take a strange turn. P2 also turns over his cards, thinking they are all-in. It happened so quickly that we (the other players) couldn't stop either from showing.
Here's how we proceeded:
We made sure the pot was made right, so P1 puts the money to call the re-raise.
Then, we burned and flopped with action on P1 (P2 had position), although the 2 hands were still turned up.
Thoughts?
How would it have been handled in a regulated room with "standard" rules?
11 Replies
I would do exactly the same. If they want to get the rest in on the turn (or even blind before the turn goes out to minimize any free rolling) it is up to them
That's what I would do too. Also be sure to warn both players for revealing their cards with action pending 
Both players seem to want to be all-in for the amount of money they put on the table so I'd run it out only for that amount, with no post-flop action.
I initially suggested that to them, but P2 didn't want that. When he turned over his cards, he thought P1 had called with less chips, so they were all-in but not with P2's tournament life at risk.
When he realized that P1 had chips behind (and possibly covering him), P2 wanted to play on "normally" on the flop. I don't blame him for that.
For what it's worth, P1 had QQ and P2 had JJ.
With a flop with no overcards, P1 went all-in and P2 folded.
At that point in the tournament, there were 6 players remaining out of 22. P1 ended up finishing 6th and P2, 3rd.
That's what I would do too. Also be sure to warn both players for revealing their cards with action pending
Yes, both players were warned of course. By the way, we're still discussing that hand among our league's players (lol) and the situation will be clarified before the next tournament.
Some even suggested that P1's hand should be declared dead. Although it's a legal floor decision under TDA rules, I feel that it's way too harsh of a ruling. Maybe a round of penalty for P1 would be warranted?
What do you guys think?
The ruling was correct in my opinion in terms of how to play on.
If this happened at a casino during a tournament P1 would likely get a 3 hand penalty after the hand. But the thing is once P2 turns over his hand he would also likely get a 3 hand penalty.
I turned my hand over once thinking the SB had gone all in to call my raise (because his last 3 chips were in his hand). He asked the Floor to come over and make my hand dead. The floor did not kill my hand but he did give me a 1 round penalty which was awkward because we were on the bubble. So I missed an entire level. But this was many years ago before they changed it to just a 3 hand penalty.
The only time I ever saw this type of situation without a 3 hand penalty was when the player who thought he was all in, and had turned over his cards, only had very few chips left (less than one blind) so the Floor let him go all in before the flop was dealt with no penalty (and the other player who was me called before the flop was dealt).
Dead hand is terrible terrible. Never ever do that.
I wouldn't even penalize for something that is explainable and has almost no impact, but in a tournament with a need to be consistent then sure, give them both 3 hand penalties.
I initially suggested that to them, but P2 didn't want that. When he turned over his cards, he thought P1 had called with less chips, so they were all-in but not with P2's tournament life at risk.
When he realized that P1 had chips behind (and possibly covering him), P2 wanted to play on "normally" on the flop. I don't blame him for that.
While it wouldn’t have been the correct way to handle why didn’t P2 want to be all in but only for the preflop action (which disruptive seemed to suggest)?
